I have a situation where a tenant is refusing to vacate a flat. I have checked the law on this and the ordinance provides some transitional arrangements for leases contracted before July 2004.
In my situation, the original lease was signed before 2004 and has long expired (I cannot remember the exact dates) but the tenant has continued renting the flat without a a new lease being signed. The rent remained unchanged all along.
My question is: is the tenant still on the original lease (and hence the transitional provisions still apply) or has the lease been renewed (by deemed mutual consent)?
Thanks for any advice.